Thursday, February 4, 2010

Different views about pleasure

The beginning parts of Book X of Aristotle’s Nicomachean Ethics involves whether or not pleasure is the good. In chapters 2 and 3 of Book X, three different views are shown arguing if pleasure is the good. The first argument to emerge was from Eudoxus. He thought that, “pleasure is the good, because he saw that all [animals], both rational and non-rational, seek it.” (Page 154) What Eudoxus is saying is that animals with or without reason strive for good. Obviously, both rational and non-rational animals seek different pleasures but he also said that they were similar because, “what all aim at, is the good.” (Page 154)
Eudoxus says that pain, “is something to be avoided for all, so that, similarly, its contrary is choice worthy for all.” (Page 154) In other words, pleasure should be sought by everyone, while pain needs to be avoided. However, isn’t it harmful for an individual to avoid pain? However, Eudoxus thoughts of pleasure being the good come into question by Plato. Plato believes that pleasure is a good; however, it is one of the many other goods.
Plato disagrees with Eudoxus notion that good added with another type of good makes a good more desirable. “Plato uses this sort of argument to undermine the claim of pleasure to be the good. For he argues, the pleasant life is more choice worthy when combined with prudence than it is without it; and if the mixed [good] is better, pleasure is not the good, since nothing can be added to the good to make it more choice worthy.” (Page 155)
Aristotle agrees with Plato about pleasure being a good, but not the good. Aristotle argues against their views that pleasure is not a quality, is indefinite and is a process. Aristotle argues against their beliefs by saying that pleasure is not a process. I question Aristotle when he says that pleasure is not a process. How doesn’t pleasure require a process? Don’t a few steps need to be taken in order to achieve pleasure? I think Aristotle answers my question by saying that, “For every process, such as constructing a building, takes time, and aims at some end, and is complete when it produces the product it seeks.” (Page 157)

4 comments:

vladdy said...

I'm not sure that the final quote answers the question you asked specifically, but I think you might have been alluding to the remainder of Book X, Chapter 4.

Pleasure is not a process because it is never incomplete or undeveloped, as is a building in Aristotle's example of the process of producing a temple (1174a25-30). One way of understanding this is that it is never in the middle of being realized--you either have pleasure or you do not. In your example, the process involved in pleasure is one associated with attaining it, not realizing it. For instance, I could spend the rest of my life looking for a perfect banana, but once I find that banana, I will have pleasure immediately.

Beyond this, he emphasizes the fact that pleasure is whole or complete, so that it is impossible for it to ever be involved in a process or a development or a coming to be (Book X, Ch. 4, §4). Being indivisible, pleasure cannot be had in pieces or as a gradual progression. This is more of a logical/technical argument, but it illustrates another reason why Aristotle believes it cannot be a process.

S Olech said...
This comment has been removed by the author.
S Olech said...

I totally agree the last part of your post where you said "Don’t a few steps need to be taken in order to achieve pleasure?" I'm also confused on why Aristotle doesn't think that there is a process for pleasure. Since everyone seeks pleasure isn't that a process? Like if eating cookies gives someone a great pleasure, then that person has to go through a process in order to get those cookies. Going to the store picking out the type of cookie (like chocolate chip, oreo, or whatever type) and then paying for them, walking home, opening the bag, and eating the cookies, seems like a process to me. So I'm not sure if I'm not understand exactly what he means by "process" but I think that there is a process for some pleasures. Also when Aristotle says that “For every process, such as constructing a building, takes time, and aims at some end, and is complete when it produces the product it seeks.” does he mean that since constructing a building takes time, the person who constructed it can't be pleased since it required a process? What if it's the first building he's completed and it's a great accomplishment for him? Doesn't he get some sort of pleasure from this?

acorrado1 said...

To answer your question regarding whether or not a person gets pleasure from completing/accomplishing a task, I first want to say that I agree with you when you say there is a process to some pleasures. Your example of somebody accomplishing the construction of a building is good because that person who completed the building will feel that he did something worthwhile and I think he will get pleasure as a result.